Friday, September 03, 2010

God’s Approval Of Polygamy with King David? (Essay)

Preface: This was written for my Advanced Bible - Old Testament class when I was a student of Bible & Ministry and submitted June 1, 2001.

God’s Approval Of Polygamy with King David?

The seventh commandment says, “Thou shalt not commit adultery.” (Exod. 20:14) What about King David, who lived four centuries later? It appears as though God is condoning polygamy when “Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul; And I gave thee thy master's house, and thy master's wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah…” (2Sam. 12:7b-8a) However, God later appears to contradict his own words by saying, “And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife…and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.” (Matt. 19:9) Is this just another example of contradiction in the Bible, as some would say? Or, is this the perfect point to “study to show thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly dividing the word of truth”? (2Tim. 2:15)

One viewpoint on this topic in general is that of Norman Geisler who says:
“There is ample evidence, even within the Old Testament, that polygamy was not God’s ideal for man. That monogamy was His ideal for man is obvious from several perspectives.
1) God made only one wide for Adam, thus settling the ideal precedent for the race.
2) Polygamy is first mentioned as part of the wicked Cainite civilization. (Gen. 4:23)
3) God clearly forbade the kings of Israel (leaders were the persons who became polygamists) saying, “And he shall not multiply wives for himself, lest his heart turn away again.” (Deut. 17:17)
4) The saints who became polygamists paid for their sins. 1 Kings 11:1,3 says, Now King Solomon loved many foreign women…and his wives turned away his heart…”
5) Polygamy is usually situated on the context of sin in the O.T. Abraham’s marriage of Hagar was clearly a canal act of unbelief. (Gen. 16:1f) David was not at a spiritual peak when he added Abigail and Ahinoam as his wives (1Sam. 25:42-43), nor was Jacob when he married Leah and Rachel. (Gen. 29:23,28)
6) The polygamous relation was less than ideal. It was one of jealousy among the wives. Jacob loved Rachel more than Leah. (Gen. 29:31) Elkanah’s one wife was considered a “rival“ or adversary by the other, who “used to provoke her sorely, to irritate her…” (1Sam. 1:6)
7) When polygamy is referred to, the conditional, not the imperative, is used. “If he takes another wife to himself, he shall not diminish her food, her clothing, or her marital rights.” (Exod. 21:10) Polygamy is not the moral ideal, but the polygamist must be moral.
Though this touches on people other than King David, the concepts can still apply on God’s approval of polygamy with David specifically.

Another viewpoint, supporting the idea that polygamy is “Christian” for lack of a better term, and in fact supported by the Word of God.
“Frequently…very first humans found in the Scriptures, Adam and Eve, who are often cited and referenced as a supposed "proof" that polygamy is somehow "not as God intended". That is, Adam's and Eve's APPARENT (but not definitively proven) "monogamous" marriage is cited as the presupposition that that somehow "proves" that "God's Original Plan for Marriage" was only one wife per husband. Adam and Eve. Adam and Eve. Adam and Eve. This tirelessly-cited presupposition declares, QUOTE, "Because it was only Adam and Eve, it was God's Original Plan that a man only marry one wife." UNQUOTE.

But for Spirit-walking, Scripture believing, intellectually honest Christians, is that a legitimate and sound presupposition for us to conclude? Is it objective reasoning out of the Scriptures for us Christians to pre-suppose, just because the Scriptures only reference Eve as Adam's wife (i.e., in referring to no other wives by name or specific reference), that that somehow means that God therefore opposes any man having more than one wife?

It is that very presupposition on which many Christians rely (and of course outright anti-polygynists rely upon this too) in their resistance (if not outright opposition) to the truth that Christian Polygamy and that the recent modern-day advance thereof among so many Scripture-believing Christians is of God. And they rely upon this presupposition without even considering whether the presupposition has any foundation with which to even begin. …After all, beyond the obvious evidences of all the holy men of God in the Scriptures (e.g., Abraham, Israel, Moses, Gideon, David, etc.) who were openly and visibly polygamous, it is indeed at least reasonable and even important for us to re-consider the presupposition because there ARE reasons that even specifically give cause for questioning the presupposition.

Namely, specifically, that presupposition unwittingly neglects (or fails) to realize some additional very important factors that also applies. These other factors are certainly real and significant enough that they surely warrant our making a deeper investigation into the soundness of that presupposition with regards to whether or not it should or can be legitimately held as a matter of doctrine for us Christians.

For one factor, the entire book of Genesis (and hence, the entire story of Adam and Eve) was ALL written by Moses, a spirit-filled (Num. 11:17) polygamist (Exod. 2:21 &15:1-6, and Num 12:1). Yet, if one follows the presupposition about "God's Original Plan" as it was in the "beginning", then surely Moses, the very mortal author of that story itself, would have known "the Original Plan" too! And with that realized, yet we also see that Moses had two wives.

Another factor is about all the questions pertaining to wondering who were the parents of the wives which Adam's and Eve's sons married, of which we do not have a definitive answer in any regard. Yet, if one follows that presupposition about "God's Original Plan", then that presupposition would therefore likewise be mandating incestuous relationships in one way or another, as well, it would appear.

So, clearly, as these two factors immediately demonstrate, there is at least some reasonableness in now questioning the legitimacy of any of us Christians relying upon that presupposition (about supposedly following "God's Original Plan For Marriage" as being defined by the perceived example of Adam and Eve as at the "beginning") as a matter of doctrine for us Christians to follow even unto today.

That is to say, at least, these two factors do provide us at least some reasonableness to question the validity and soundness of that presupposition about "God's Original Plan for Marriage". And with such reasonableness thus established, we Christians then surely have warrant to investigate and analyze the issue more deeply, to see if we Christians should indeed be following a different presupposition, instead, regarding this matter.

Man is made in the image of God, while the woman is the glory of the man. And so, just as Christ so selflessly and lovingly gave of Himself for the Churches in His love for all of us in the Churches, so likewise are men to so profoundly love their wives. That is the Christian Marriage Model of Ephesians 5:22-25…

"And so it is written, the first man Adam was made a living soul; the last Adam [i.e., Christ] was made a quickening spirit. Howbeit THAT WAS NOT FIRST THAT WHICH IS SPIRITUAL, but [instead it was] that which is natural [i.e., of nature, earth, flesh]; and [then came ] AFTERWARD THAT WHICH IS SPIRITUAL. The first man is of the earth, earthy: the second man is the Lord from heaven." (1Cor 15:45-47)
"And as we have borne the image of the earthy, we shall also bear the image of the heavenly." (1Cor. 15:49)
And that is God's Plan for us Christians NOW, without any regard for any inaccurately 'perceived' presupposition of God's supposed "original" plan for marriage.“
There is a lot more on from this person, but this excerpt catches the mindset and lack of any real biblical proof as support for the doctrine.

I believe, that while it was wrong in the eyes of God, it was tolerated like many other sins in life, but man has a free will that God will not interfere with. It also makes sense to conclude that polygamy died out as a result of a better understanding of God’s word. There is no reference of polygamy from the time of the return from Babylonian exile forward throughout the Old Testament. Romans 8 sums it up very well for me, “For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit. For they that are after the flesh do mind the things of the flesh; but they that are after the Spirit the things of the Spirit…” (Vs. 3-5) We are those “which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God,” (John 1:13) yet we too still choose to sin. It is in our flesh, as polygamy was for the reasons of sexual desire, need for a power trip or right to brag, or to go along with the culture irrelevant of our beliefs. The instance of King David is slightly different, therefore leaving me still stumped at the reasoning behind the event, but not the intent.

 The very first reference to polygamy in the Bible is in Genesis with Lamech (Gen. 4:23-24), and is portrayed as a boasting by him. There is no mention again of plural marriages until the time on Abraham. It appears that King David was “given” these wives by God along with a lot of other things. In this case, it was not his sin that put him in this situation, but God. Why did God do this? I do not think that we ever will have an answer to that, but the point is to follow the written word, the Bible. God gave it to us, we need to use it, rely on it, take it to be 100% truthful (in light of seemingly contradictory passages) and put our faith in Him and His Word. We should not give into the flesh, or the cultures of the world that we live in to satisfy the wrong needs. Remember, when you stand to be judged, your culture won’t be there to back up your wrong doings. Ephesians 5:23 states, “For the husband is the head of the wife, even as Christ is the head of the church…” The implication here is that there is one church, the Body of Christ, which God is the Head of. Just like the husband is the head over the ‘body’ of marriage between a man and woman. How can a man be the head over more bodies, i.e. more women? Verses such as these create the need for each of us to be a Berean and find out what God has to say through his word to you!

1 - All Bible verse references from: The Scofield Study Bible Most current Copyright  1945 by Oxford University Press, Inc. previously published as The Scofield Reference Bible
2 - Gleason L. Archer, Jr., Encyclopedia of Bible Difficulties © Copyright 1982 by the Zondervan Corporation, pg. 123-124
3 - http://www.truthbearer.org/doctrine/original-plan-for-marriage/1/ , © Copyright 1994-2001 by Truth Bearer
4 - See note 2, pg. 123
5 - See note 2, pg. 122
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© 2001 Shannon Yáñez